Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 26.06.2025 01:00
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
You'll usually find your answer there.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
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Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
There's no rule.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Et expedita consequatur quam et.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
What is the funniest joke you've been told that you still think about to this day?
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.